TREC Sales Agent Practice Exam

When a husband sells a rental property that is solely in his name, he has the legal authority to sign the listing agreement by himself. This is based on the principle of ownership, where the individual who holds title to the property can enter into contracts regarding that property without needing the consent or signature of another party.

If the property is solely owned by the husband, the wife would not have an ownership interest, and therefore, her signature is not required for the listing agreement. This situation often arises in cases where one spouse solely holds title to a property, allowing that spouse to make decisions regarding the sale independently.

In contrast, if the property were jointly owned or if there were specific legal stipulations regarding the ownership structure, both parties may need to sign, but as the question specifically pertains to a husband selling a property alone, the husband is the only one who needs to sign the listing agreement.